Who is adding to the verses of the Quran?

Salaamun Alaykum,

I was accused by abulhaarith that I added to the verse in an attempt to explain toubayyina from a quranic perspective when I said ‘Toubayyina means to show/proclaim/express clearly and NOT TO HIDE.  

So the clarification is upon them.  But here he trys to add “and not hide” to the meaning which is deception. He adds the part “not hide” to another verse. So he makes Idaafah (addition) to the meaning of the word Bayyinah, which we can accept as “clarify”. Here this Quraanite ADDS “and not hide what has been revealed”, this is NO WHERE in the Arabic. The word “تكتمونة” does NOT appear in this verse like it does in the other verse. If the word بينة means to clarify “and not to hide”, then the previous word would not be necessary in the verse he first quoted. However he uses that verse to add to the meaning of another verse. Allaahul Musta’aan. This is deception and trickery with the words of Allaah. He uses one verse to add to another. One being said about the People of the Book who hid some of the revelation, and one being said about the Prophet -peace be upon him-.

Firstly, I wish to say that I am not a quranite and I am a muslim.. No one can call me a quranite when Allah gave me the title of Muslim.. If we can play the ‘names calling game…’, then I have the full right to call them ‘followers of hearsay and fabrications…”.  So, abover as ou have read, he is saying that I took this not to hide from another verse and add it to another one which is totally false.  He did not understand anything about how we need to understand the Quran.  Think for yourself.. What does express/proclaim clearly means?? Can we proclaim something clearly and hide bits and pieces from it? Proclaiming clearly itself means not to hide and saying something outloud.  So where is an addition?  It is no addition at all and it was only more details into the meaning.  We cannot explain the meaning of a word, especially arabic, with another single word.. More that often, we need to describe the meaning with multiple words.  And the Quran give us the meaning most of the time when the word is used regularly.  Another proof for the toubayyina issue is in the verse where Jesus(Isa) is saying that he has been sent to that he can ‘oubayyina’ to his people in what they used to differ… And immediately in the next verse, Jesus is saying them the very first thing they used to differ on which is the worship of One single God.  So this is what Jesus proclaimed openly to his people.  Come and worship one God alone and do not set partners with him.

Now.. Look at this screeshot from abulhaarith blog.

In this verse, Allah is is ordering us tofollow what has been revealed to US from him and all over the Quran, you will never find a verse where Allah is saying He revealed the SUNNAH… But here in his interpretation, he puts QURAN and SUNNAH.  And he comes to this conclusion using external sources and other books while the Quran give no such indication at any time.  Everywhere you will find Allah saying he revealed Al-Kitaab, Al-Zikr, Al-Buhaan and so many other names which gives a clear and perfect description of this Quran… But in none of these you will find Allah saying ‘I revealed the SUNNAH so that you may so and so….”

SO now tell me… Who is adding?  Who is forcing the meaning?  My attempt of explaining the meaning was achieved using a quranic perspecive which he adds to the meaning of a verse and other verses as well…using EXTERNAL sources… most of which are fabricated, suspicious and very doubtful.. I leave the decision on this matter on you…

Also worth noting is.. He quotes Bukhari when it suits him, he quotes Ibn Kathir when it suits him and same for the Quran verses.  When I pointed out the BLUR spots on tafseer ibn kathir or Bukhari… He becomes dumb, death and blind…

Wassalaam